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Đề Cương Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 Học Kì 1 Năm 2022

Đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp án

Ôn tập học kì 1 tiếng Anh 12 mới năm 2019 – 2020

* Kiến thức tiếng Anh trọng tâm lớp 12 hk1:

– Từ vựng: Từ mới tiếng Anh xuất hiện trong Unit 1 – 5 SGK tiếng Anh 12 mới

– Những chủ điểm Ngữ pháp tiếng Anh trọng tâm gồm:

+ Các thì tiếng Anh quá khứ (Past Tense)

+ Thì Hiện tại hoàn thành và thì hiện tại hoàn thành tiếp diễn (The present perfect and the present perfect continuous)

+ Cách dùng mạo từ A, An, The

+ Cấu trúc chủ ngữ giả trong mệnh đề That (The subjunctive in that-clause)

+ Các loại câu đơn, câu phức và câu ghép (Simple, complex and compound sentences)

+ Mệnh đề quan hệ với Which

+ Một số cụm Động từ + giới từ (Prepositions after certain verbs)

+ So sánh lặp (Repeated Comparatives)

PRONUNCIATION Choose the word whose primary stress differently from the rest. VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR. I: Complete the following sentences with a suitable form of the given word.

1. For an actor, winning an Oscar is one of the greatest …………………………… (achieve) you hope for.

2. She thanked the staff for their …………………………. (dedicate) and enthusiasm.

3. She’s a …………………………… (distinguish) novelist and philosopher.

4. Mrs Brown is admired for her …………………………… (generous).

5. His …………………………… (persevere) helped him win partial scholoarships to attend Cambridge University.

6. The company has a worldwide …………………………… (repute) for quality.

7. They are a …………………………… (respect) married couple.

8. I could see she was a …………………………… (talent) leader.

9. The country’s economy is mainly …………………………… (agriculture).

10. I see the same law working in nature for …………………… (conserve) and growth

11. The law has done little to prevent racial ………………… (disciminate) and inequality.

12. After that, with …………………………… (industrialise), we have cities developing.

13. In September, these birds …………………………… (migration) to a warmer climate.

14. The …………………………… (unemploy) rate was 4 percent in January.

15. Other issues such as migration, …………………………… (urban), and the media are also discussed.

16. The local government has placed a ………………… (preserve) order on the building.

17. The organization works to …………………… (promotion) friendship between nations.

18. My city is going to build a new water ………………… (purify) plant next month.

19. They will …………………………… (replenishment) fresh vegetables and food.

20. There are some urgent things that need to be done in different areas to ensure the environmental …………………………… (sustainable).

21. They showed a ……………………………(document) on animal communication.

22. He’s …………………………… (addict) to computer games.

23. The city’s transport system is one of the most ………………… (efficiency) in Europe.

24. She ……………………….. (subscription) to several celebrities’ entertainment channels.

25. All languages have …………………………… (assimilation) variant pronunciation.

26. The net result is reduced …………………………… (diverse) in provision.

27. Australia has its own cultural ……………………(identification), which is very different from that of Britain.

28. We live in a …………………………… (culture) society.

29. The new President hopes to …………………………… (uniformity) the country.

30. She inspired a generation of musical …………………………… (innovate).

2. Thanks to urbanisation, rural people can actually change their ……………………… and accept more progressive ideas.

3. When too many people cram into a small area, urban ………………………can’t be effective.

4. Their house are just shabby slums with poor ………………………

5. This is the best market to buy ……………………… food.

6. One of the easiest ways to prevent breathing in ……………………… particles is wearing a face mask.

7. Research has shown that office ……………………… has negative effects on employers’ productivity and job performance.

8. ……………………… is a chemical reaction between substances and oxygen to produce heat and light.

9. Some people think that the energy resources we use cannot be ………………………

10. Abraham Lincoln is a simple man with a powerful inner strength and a remarkable ability to overcome ……………………… .

11. After three years in prison, he was again ……………………… with his wife and family.

12. I hardly think jeans are appropriate ……………………… for a wedding.

13. The children were dressed in Halloween ……………………… .

14. I’d recognize your handwriting anywhere – it’s ……………………… .

15. The church were built to ……………………… God.

16. A noisy ……………………… of tourists came into the building.

17. He had to use a ……………………… arm after an accident.

18. That industry has gone ……………………… and is successfully marketing its goods.

19. We take great ……………………… in offering the best service in city.

20. Many individuals like sharing their whereabouts and status updates through ……………… .

21. ……………………… is the activity of using messages on social networking sites, emails, text messages, etc. to frighten or upset somebody.

22. The president appealed the national ……………………… in the face of danger.

23. Within 30 years the population had grown ……………………… to over 57,000.

24. ……………………… is natural materials from living or recently dead plants, trees and animals, used as fuel and in industrial production, especially in the generation of electricity.

25. The specialist ……………………… cancer.

26. The demonstrator handed out ……………………… to passers-by.

27. The money was donated by an ……………………… sponsor.

28. She was brought up in the slums of ……………………… Manila.

29. Life was transformed by the ……………………… of computer.

30. The sports team always show ……………………… spirit.

III: Complete each gap with an article. Write a cross (X) if no articles are necessary.

1. I play …………..violin in an orchestra. They pay me £80 …………..day!

2. Sorry, I can’t find the number. I remember writing it on chúng tôi of an envelop.

3. ……………. gold is perhaps ……………. most highly treasured metal.

4. …………..Mekong River is …………..longest river in ……………..Vietnam.

5. ………………..winter is usually cold, but …………….. winter of this year is warm.

6. He usually travels to ……………..Philadelphia by ………………..train.

7. Miss Linda speaks …………….Chinese very well although she is from …………..UK.

8. Please open …………..door.

9. I told Mom we would be chúng tôi in chúng tôi or so.

10. Sue works as …………..teacher in …………..school for …………..blind in Ireland ………….. school has over a thousand pupils.

12 Đề Thi Học Kì 1 Lớp 12 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án (Bản Word)

Nhằm giúp các bạn có thêm tài liệu ôn thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh, Thích Tiếng Anh chia sẻ “12 Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án“. Các đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh được tổng hợp từ các trường THPT trên toàn quốc, mỗi đề thi thử đều có đáp án để các bạn đối chiếu kết quả, giúp các bạn củng cố lại kiến thức từ vựng và ngữ pháp Tiếng Anh thông qua việc ôn tập các đề thi học kì của các trường khác.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Many thanks, Mary. That’s a nice compliment!

Really?

I thought it was terrible.

Just kidding.

No, I’m not. B. That’ll be lovely. C. I’ll be back soon. D. It doesn’t matter.

Traditionalists B. Tradition C. Traditional D. Traditionally

People should be allowed to determinetheir future.

show B. decide C. discover D. prove

confide in B. reveal to C. gossip about D. conceal from

that B. whom C. who D. whose

on B. of C. about D. in

what John did B. what John does C. what did John do D. what does John do

are made B. were made C. making D. made

by B. to C. for D. at

would fail B. will fail C. wouldn’t fail D. won’t fail

have moved B. moved C. move D. is moving

with B. of C. for D. about

You should concentrate onwhat the interviewer is asking you then try to answer all his questions.

mind B. notice C. consider D. pay attention to

because B. although C. despite D. in spite of

who B. that C. when D. which

with B. by C. to D. on

the B. a C. my D. your

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1to 6.

I live with my parents and two younger brothers. My mother works as a doctor in a big hospital. She must work from 8 a. m. to 5 p. m. and once a week she has to work on a night shift. My father is a biologist. He also has a full-time job in a lab but sometimes he doesn’t come home until very late at night. Although my parents are very busy but they try to spend as much time with their children as possible. It is generally said that ‘men build the house and women make it home’, but in my family, my parents join hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.

Being the eldest child and the only daughter in the family, I try to help with the household chores. My main responsibility is to wash the dishes and take out the garbage. I also take after the boys, who are quite active and mischievous sometimes, but they are obedient and hard-working. They love joining my father in mending things around the house at weekends.

two B. three C. four D. five

part-time B. night shift C. full-time D. nursing

both men and women are good at building houses

both husband and wife must join hands to build their house.

men are responsible for supporting their family while women’s responsibility is to look after their children.

men and women have to live separately.

a girl B. a boy C. the only child D. the eldest son

doing some washing-up B. washing up and taking out the garbage

taking after the two brothers D. taking out the garbage

mischievous B. active C. obedient D. obedient and studious

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each or the blanks from 30 to 40.

Asked about life in the future, many people have given different answers to this. Some are pessimistic while others are optimistic.

A. much worse B. much better C. much bad D. much good

A. economical B. economic C. economically D. economist

A. will threaten B. were threatened C. will be threatened D. are threatened

A. Additionally B. On contrast C. Opposite D. On the contrary

A. fattier B. more healthful C. healthier D. faster

A. looked for B. looked up C. looked after D. looked at

A. yet B. no longer C. still D. already

A. most of B. lot of C. many of D. several of

A. extremely B. completely C. quite D. not

A. In addition B. Moreover C. So D. However

A. bettering B. worsening C. increasing D. profiting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The last time I saw him was five years ago.

I have seen him for five years.

I haven’t seen him for five years.

I have seen him the last time for five years.

It is five years since I see him.

“How long have you been studying English, Lan?” asked Tom.

Tom asked Lan how long had she been studying English.

Tom asked Lan how long she has been studying English.

Tom asked Lan how long she had been studying English.

Tom asked Lan how long has she been studying English.

They are painting the building now.

They have the building painted now.

The building is painting now.

Now the building is painted.

The building is being painted now.

I want to give you a lift but I don’t have a car.

If I had a car, I would give you a lift.

If I had a car, I would want to give you a lift.

If I wanted you a lift I must have a car.

I will give you a lift if! Have a car.

He worked very hard but he didn’t pass the exam.

He didn’t pass the exam despite he worked very hard.

He didn’t pass the exam although he worked very hard.

Because of working very hard, he didn’t pass the exam.

He didn’t pass the exam in spite of he worked very hard.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

Thích Tiếng Anh chia sẻ “12 Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án” và sẽ tiếp tục cập nhật thêm nhiều đề thi thử Tiếng Anh hơn để giúp các bạn chuẩn bị kiến thức tốt nhất cho các kì thi.

15 Đề Thi Học Kì 1 Lớp 12 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án

15 đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án

Tài liệu ôn thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12

Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh

Kì thi học kì 1 là thời gian đầy căng thẳng và áp lực với kỳ vọng của thầy cô, cha mẹ, bạn bè. Hiểu được tâm trạng ấy và mong muốn các em đạt kết quả cao hơn, chúng tôi đã tuyển chọn và giới thiệu . Hi vọng đây sẽ là tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích cho các em học sinh.

A. hasbeen painted B. was painted C. painted D. has painted

A. will/ do/are B. would/ do/ were C. can/ do/ was D. shall/ do/ are

A. would see B. will see C. am going to see D. see

A. ate B. eat C. eaten D. eating

A. had lost B. lost C. has lost D. lose

A. at B. of C. about D. in

A. of B. for C. with D. to

A. society B. socialize C. social D. socializing

A. communication B. communicate C. communicant D. communicative

A. responsibly B. responsible C. responsibility D. responsive

A. disappointment B. disappointedly C. disappointed D. disappoint

A. What a lovelytoy! B. Have a nice day!

C. The same toyou! D. What a pity!

A. It’snice B. You’re welcome C. Not at all D. Thanks, Peter

A. check B. examination C. interview D. test

A. to B. so that C. because D. so

22. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. be related to B. express interest in C. be interested in D. pay attention to

A. he was going/ following day C. I was going/ day after

B. I’m going/ day after D. he’s going/ following day

24. “It was nice of you to give me the present. Thank you” Ben said to Mary.

A. of giving him

B. for giving him

C. it had been nice of her to give him

D. that she had been nice to give him

25. Shakespeare wrote “Romeo and Juliet” in 1605.

A. “Romeo and Juliet” were written by Shakespearein1605

B. “Romeo and Juliet” was written by Shakespeare in 1605.

C. ” Romeo and Juliet” was written in 1605 by Shakespeare

D. ” Romeo and Juliet” were written in 1605 byShakespeare

A. have beentotally destroyed C. have totally been destroyed

B. has been totally destroyed D. has totally been destroyed

– Unless you much harder, you the exam.

A. work/ will pass C. don’t work/ will pass

B. don’t work/ won’t pass D. work/ won’t pass

28. My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise.

A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick.

B. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick.

C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick.

D. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick.

A. whose B. that C. where D. which

30. My father wants to speak to you. You met him yesterday.

A. whose B. whom C. whom D. that

31. In spite of his poorness, he is honest.

A. Although he is poor, he is C. Despite he is poor, he is honest.

B. Although he is poor, but he is honest. D. In spite of he is poor, he is honest.

A. though B. because C. because of D. in spite of

A. ф/ in B. a/ ф C. ф/ on D. the/ ф

A. a/ a/a B. the/ the/ the C. ф/ ф/ ф D. the/ the/ ф

35. The man who is speaking to John is my brother.

A. The man spoke to John is my brother.

B. The man spoken to John is my brother.

C. The man is speaking to John is my brother.

D. The man speaking to John is my brother.

A. written B. writing C. which written D. that wrote

Choose the underlined part that needs correction.

37. I often listen music when I have free time. A B C D

38. We spent a week to preparing for our concert. A B C D

39. The phone rung while I was washing the dishes. A B C D

40. The more live with him, the most I love him. A B C D

Read the passage below and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.

The habits of those who constantly play video games are very important to people working in video-game industry. If video games are going to one of the most attractive features of future interactive systems, it is essential for producers to know what types of games to make, how best to present such games on interactive video, and how to ensure that such games maintain their fascination for people. Above all, it is vital to build up detailed profiles of people who are addicted to video games.

Until recently, the chief market for video games has been boys aged eight to fifteen. The fascination for interactive video games is seen in its purest form in this group. Video games appeal to some deep instinct in boys who find it impossible to tear themselves from them. Schoolwork is ignored, health is damaged and even eating habits are affected. Girls of the same age, however, are entirely different, demonstrating far greater freedom from the hold of video games. Quite simply, they can take video games in their strike, being able to play them when they want and then leave them alone.

A. finding the best ways of continuing to attract people

B. developing computer techniques in making such games

C. learning about drug to which people are addicted

D. designing ways

A. young adult women

B. boys from eight to fifteen years old

C. girls between eight and fifteen

D. supermarket assistants

A. Adult men and women

B. Boys and girls from eight to fifteen

C. Girls and boys above eight

D. Girls and boys below eight

A. separate boys from girls

B. make people relaxing

C. destroy people’s instincts

D. make people physically

A. more intelligent than boys

B. more addicted to video games

C. more concentrated on video games

D. less affected by video games

Đề Thi Học Kì 1 Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 Thí Điểm Có Đáp Án

Đề thi tiếng Anh 12 học kì 1 có đáp án

Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.

3. a. summary b. different c. physical d. decision

4. a. attractiveness b. traditional c. generation d. American

A. studied/ were B. studied/ have been C. have studied/ were D. have studied/ have been

A. did B. made C. caused D. created

A. at B. to C. in D. against

A. repetitive B. repeatedly C. repetition D. repeat

A. that B. whom C. whose D. which

A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived

A. hard to take part B. to take hard part C. to hard take part D. to take part hard

A. does B. has C. doesn’t D. hasn’t

A. be careful B. not be careless C. to be careful D. to be careful with

A. speed B. fast C. time D. pace

A. touch B. link C. contact D. connection

A. reading B. to read C. to reading D. has read

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

17. Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.

– Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”

A. Nothing more to say.

B. You can say that again.

C. Yes, I hope so.

D. No, dogs are very good, too.

18. David is talking about Mr. West’s early retirement.

– David: “Mr. West is going to retire next month.”

A. Oh, I have no idea.

B. You don’t say!

C. Right, you’d probably be the next.

D. Congratulations!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).

19: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements.

A. something to entertain

B. something sad

C. something enjoyable

D. something to suffer

20. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

A. fluctuate

B. stay unchanged

C. restrain

D. remain unstable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).

21. Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.

A. irritations

B. annoyances

C. fears

D. risks

22. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.

A. like

B. same

C. various

D. respected

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.

23. Are Vietnamese children (A) allowed to join (B) their parents in making (C) family choose (D)?

24. The assumption that (A) smoking has bad effects (B) on (C) our health have been proved (D).

25. Thousands of years (A) ago, the Sahara had water enough (B) so that people and animals were able (C) to survive on the edge of the desert (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

26. Lien last visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments two weeks ago.

A. Lien hasn’t visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks.

B. It’s two weeks when Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments.

C. Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks.

D. This is the last time Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments.

27. Kate works for an organization which collects money to help orphans.

A. The organization which Kate works for collects money to help orphans.

B. The organization where Kate works for collects money to help orphans.

C. The organization for that Kate works collects money to help orphans.

D. Money of orphans is collected in the organization where Kate works.

28. “When the bell rings take the meat out of the oven,” my sister said.

A. My sister warned me against taking the meat out of the oven when the bell rang.

B. My sister said that when the bell rang I was to take the meat out of the oven.

C. My sister suggested that I should take the meat out of the oven when the bell rang.

D. My sister asked me that when the bell rang to take the meat out of the oven.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs.

29. The holiday was so expensive. We could only afford five days.

A. It was such an expensive holiday that we could only afford five days.

B. The holiday was dirt cheap, so we could afford more than five days.

C. So expensive was a five-day holiday that we could hardly afford it.

D. A five-day holiday wasn’t cheap, so we couldn’t afford it.

30. The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.

A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.

B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.

C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.

D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

31 a. unless b. if c. otherwise d. when

32. a. better b. earlier c. later d. worse

33. a. remain b. maintain c. develop d. happen

34. a. career b. environment c. compartment d. area

35. a. quietly b. quite c. quiet d. hardly

Read the passage and then choose the best answer.

Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot.

Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.

Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people.

While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.

36. The word “these” in paragraph1 refers to …………………

A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute

C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions

37. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT …………………….

A. there are many forms of communication in existence today

B. verbalization is the most common form of communication

C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication

D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language

38. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people?

A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags

39. The word “wink” in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as

A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly

C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side

40. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for ……………….

A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions

41. People need to communicate in order to ……………….

A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertips

C. be picturesque and exact D. express thoughts and feelings

42. What is the best title for the passage?

A. The Important of Sign Language

B. The Many Forms of Communication

C. Ways of Expressing Feelings

D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication

Read the passage and then choose the best answer. THE GOLDEN GATE BRIDGE

The golden Gate Bridge is one of the symbols of the United States of America. It is located in San Francisco, California, and spans the Golden Gate strait-a mile wide strait that connects the Pacific Ocean to the San francisco Bay.

It is sure one of the most beautiful bridges in the world, and also one of the tallest (the height of a bridge is the height of the towers). The bridge as it is today was designed by architects Irving and Gertrude Morrow. However thier art deco project was not the first Golden Gate Bridge. The original plans for the bridge were drawn in 1961, but they were of a very complicated and ugly structure, certainly not something could be ever proud of.

The bridge was a true experiment in its time, such a long suspension bridge had never been tried before. It had the hightest towers, the thickest cables and the largest underwater foundations ever built. The foundations were a real problem, because they had to be cast in a depth of more than 100 feet. Extreme depth wasn’t the sole problem. The real challenge lay in the sinking of the piers in the violent waves of the open sea, which was thought to be almost impossible the construction began in 1933 and was finished in 1937,when the bridge opened to pedestrians. (It was opened to cars one years later). The bridge was finished ahead of schedule and cost much less than was estimated.Today the Golden Gate Bridge has a main span of 4,200 feet (almost a mile) and a total length of 8,981 feet. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet above the water. Each steel cable is 7,650 long and has a diameter of 36 inches.

”International orange ” is the color the bridge has always been painted. The architects chose it because it blends well with the span’s natural setting. However, if the Navy had had its way, the bridge would have been painted black with yellow stripes-in favor of greater visibility for passing ships. There are fog horns to let passing ships know where the bridge is, and aircraf beacon on the tops of the towers to prevent planes from crashing into them.

The Golden Gate Bridge is the first sight for many people approaching the United States by boat. It is almost the West Coast’s ” Stautue of Liberty” and is something everyone should at least once.

A.spans the San Francisco

B. is the best-known symbol of the United States

C. spans the Golden Gate Strait

D. is painted gold has a gold -plated at each end.

A.were designed by Irving and Gertrude Morrow in 1916

B. were designed by Irving Morrow but were too complicated

C. were something America could be proud of

D. were not designed in art deco style.

A. it was thought to be almost impossible

B. the piers had to be sunk in the open sea through of violent waves

C. They had to be the largest ones ever built.

D. They had to be cast by teams of divers, which was very expensive

46. Which one is true?

A. The construction of the Golden Gate Bridge took four years.

B. The bridge was opened to car traffic in 1939.

C. People were allowed to cross the bridge in 1939

D. The construction of the bridge began exactly seventeen years after the first plans were made.

47. Which one is not true about the position of the Golden Gate Bridge?

A. It is located on the West Coast.

B. It connects the San Francisco Bay to The Golden Gate Bridge

C. It is quite near the ”Statue of Liberty”

D. It is off the Pacific Ocean.

48. The word” cast” is closest in meaning to….

A. measured B. exposed C. expanded D. thrown

49. What is not true about the Golden Gate Bridge?

A. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet

B. The first was first painted black with yellow stripes

C. If you travel by boat, it may be the first sight you see

D. The bridge had been expected to cost more than it really was

50. How can passing ships know where the bridge is?

A. due to the color decided by the Navy

B. because there are beacons on the top of the tower

C. because the bridge is international orange

D. thanks to the fog horns.

ĐÁP ÁN Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

1 – C; 2 – A;

Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.

3 – d; 4 – c;

Choose from the four options given one best answer to complete each sentence.

5 – B; 6 – B; 7 – B; 8 – B; 9 – C;

10 – A; 11 – A; 12 – D; 13 – C;

14 – D; 15 – C; 16 – A;

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

17 – B; 18 – B;

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).

19 – C; 20 – B;

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).

21 – D; 22 – C;

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.

23 – D; 24 – D; 25 – B;

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

26 – A; 27 – A; 28 – B;

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs.

29 – A; 30 – D;

Read the passage and then choose the best answer to complete it.

31 – b; 32 – a; 33 – a; 34 – d; 35 – c;

Read the passage and then choose the best answer.

36 – d; 37 – c; 38 – b; 39 – a;

40 – a; 41 – d; 42 – b;

Read the passage and then choose the best answer.

43 – C; 44 – D; 45 – B; 46 – A; 47 – C; 48 – D; 49 – B; 50 – D;

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