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Bộ Đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 3 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN (3)

Đề kiểm tra cuối năm môn Tiếng Anh lớp 3 có đáp án

Đề kiểm tra Tiếng Anh học kì 2 lớp 3 có đáp án

Để không bỡ ngỡ khi bước vào kỳ thi học kỳ 2, chúng tôi giới thiệu với các em bộ sưu tập Tổng hợp Đề kiểm tra cuối năm môn Tiếng Anh lớp 3 có đáp án với nội dung đa dạng sẽ giúp các em làm quen với các dạng bài tập khó, cấu trúc đề thi. Hi vọng đây sẽ là tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích cho các em.

Đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 3 trường Tiểu Học Thị Trấn Ân Thi, Hưng Yên năm học 2015 – 2016

Đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 3 trường Tiểu học Đoàn Thị Nghiệp, Tiền Giang năm học 2015 – 2016

Bộ Đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 3 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Bộ Đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 3 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN (2)

Đề 1 PART 1. LISTENING (20 minutes) Question 1. Listen and number (1 pt) Question 2. Listen and write T (True) or F (False) (1pt) Question 3. Listen and draw the line. (1 pt) Đáp án đề kiểm tra học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 3 Lời bài nghe Question 1. Listen and number. (1 pt)

1. A: Where’s the dog?

B: It’s under the table.

2. A: What are you doing?

B: I am listening to music.

3. A: What’s the weather like?

B: It’s rainy.

4. A: Do you have a goldfish?

B: Yes, I do.

Question 2. Listen and write T (True) or F (False) (1pt).

1. There is a living room

2. There are five books on the table.

3. I like robots.

4. I’ve got four cats.

Question 3. Listen and draw the line. (1 pt)

1. A: Do you like planes?

2. B: No, I don’t.

2. I like ships.

Question 4. Listen and tick. (1 pt)

1. Laura: What is the weather like?

Jimmy : It’s windy.

2. Lilly: What are they doing?

John: They’re flying kites.

3. Mary: What pets do you have?

Peter : I have two dogs.

4. Jane: What toys do you like?

Tom: I like yo-yos.

Đề 2 PART 1: LISTENING (20 minutes) Question 1. Listen and number. (1 pt) Question 2. Listen and draw the line. There is an example. (1 pt) Question 3. Listen and tick. (2 pt) Đáp án đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 3 Question 1: (1.đ) Mỗi câu đúng chấm 0,25 đ

1. There is a garden in front of the house. 3. There is a kitchen.

2. A: This is my bedroom. 4. The bathroom is big.

B: Oh, it’s nice

Đáp án: A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 D. 3

Question 2: (1.đ) Mỗi câu đúng chấm 0.25 đ

0. I have a parrot.

2. My brother has a goldfish.

3. Nam has a plane.

3. A. They are playing hide and seek.

Question 4:(1.đ) Mỗi câu đúng chấm 0.25 đ

1. There are two posters on the wall. 2. The balls are under the bed.

3. I have a dog. 4. My sister has two rabbits

Question 5: (1.đ) Mỗi câu đúng chấm 0.25đ

1. is 2. robots chúng tôi 4. listening 5. toys

Question 6: (1.đ) Mỗi câu đúng chấm 0.25đ

1. home 2. kitchen 3. watching 4. Linda 5. cleaning

Question 7: (1.đ) Mỗi câu đúng chấm 0.25đ

1. car 2. doll 3. rabbit 4. cat

Question 8: (1.đ) Mỗi câu đúng chấm 0.25đ

1. There are four doors.

2. I have a robot.

3. He has two brothers.

4. She is playing the piano.

Bộ Đề Thi Học Kỳ 2 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 10 Có Đáp Án

4 Đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 10 học kì 2 năm 2019 – 2020

Đề thi học kì 2 lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án

I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

5. How many countries took part in the first World Cup?

A. interested

B. participated

C. competed

D. co. operated

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

6. Van Mieu was a place to memorialize the most brilliant scholars of the nation.

A. honor

B. keep in mind

C. learn by heart

D. gradually forget

A. delight

B. communicate

C. buzz

D. lull

A. motions

B. parts

C. scenes

D. Events

A. at

B. as

C. for

D. with

A. in

B. for

C. at

D. with

A. No, a problem

B. Sure, no problem

C. No, I wouldn’t

D. Yes, I would

A. is being painted

B. being painted

C. is painting

D. be painted

A. her father would come home

B. her father has come home

C. her father came home

D. her father comes home

A. expensive

B. more expensive

C. the most expensive

D. the more expensive

A. How

B. When

C. What

D. Where

16. The children became………………….. about the cartoon.

A. exciting

B. to excite

C. excited

D. excite

A. in order enter

B. to entering

C. to enter

D. not to enter

18. Everyone knows what is happening to……earth but we just do not know how to stop it.

A. an

B. a

C. the

D. Φ

VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Football is the most (19)………sport in Britain, particularly amongst men. It (20)……….by boys in most schools. Most towns have an amateur football team which plays in a minor league. Football is also the most popular (21)………sport in Britain. Many people go to see their favorite professional team (22)………at home, and some go away matches. Many more people watch football (23)………..television.

19. A. important B. famous C. difficult D. popular

20. A. plays B. was played C. is played D. played

21. A spectator B. viewer C. champion D. trophy

22. A kicking B. taking C. running D. playing

23. A in chúng tôi C. over D. at

VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Country music is one of the most popular kinds of music in the United States today. Maybe, country music is very popular because it is about simple but strong human feelings and events like love, sadness, good times and bad times. It tells real life stories and sounds the way people really talk. As life becomes more complicated and difficult, it is good to hear about simple ordinary people.

Country music is sometimes called country-western music. It comes from two kinds of music. One is the traditional music of the people in the Appalachian Mountains in the eastern United States. The other is traditional, cowboy music from the American West. The singers usually play guitars or electric guitars when they sing.

Country music became very popular in the South. During World War II, thousands of people from the South moved to the Northeast and the Midwest to work in factories. They took their music with them. Soldiers from the rest of the country went to army camps in the South and learned to like country music there. Slowly, it became popular all over the United States.

A. it’s about strong human feelings B. it’s about events like love, sadness

C. it tells about good times, bad times D. all are correct

A. the traditional music of the people in the eastern United States

B. considered as the cowboy music from the American West

C. sometimes called country-western music

D. from two kinds of music which haven’t been widely known

A. Country music became very popular in the South

B. Factory workers took country music with them from the South

C. Country music was brought from the South by soldiers

D. Gradually, country music became popular all over the United States

A. Country music B. Music in the United States

C. The Formation of Country Music D. The Benefits of Country Music

A. drum and violins B. guitars or electric guitars

C. the music instruments D. guitars and piano

VII. Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

29. Philip wasvery an noying at Joan’s behavior.

A. was B. very C. annoying D. Joan’s behavior

30. He wouldn’t have begun to learn Russian if he knows the difficulties.

A. He B. to C. knows D. difficulties

31. It was not until last Sunday when I realized I had been wrong.

A. was B. until C. when D. had been

32. The film was most interesting than I had expected it to be.

A. The film B. most C. had expected D. to be

34. Being deaf and mute makes…………. very difficult. (COMMUNICATE)

IX. Complete the sentences with the correct form of tenses in brackets(0.2 pt/ sentence):

36. Recently, we (GIVE)……………………….a questionnaire of 100 sentences by our English teacher.

X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (0.4pt/sentence)

39. He doesn’t have the money so he cannot afford to buy a new car

40. I wasn’t hungry, so I didn’t feel like eating.

41. The students studied carefully. They didn’t want to fail in the exams

42. Our English teacher has given us five midterm tests so far.

43. There were about 90 to 100 people at the concert last night.

44. The swimming pool didn’t open until 10.45 a.m. yesterday.

A. Wildlife

B. Biodiversity

C. Challenge

D. Investigation

A. broke up

B. broke into

C. finished off

D. ended up

A. under the weather

B. out of the blue

C. out of order

D. down to earth

A. If

B. Were

C. Should

D. Had

A. didn’t I come

B. don’t I come

C. you didn’t come

D. I hadn’t come

A. who

B. whose

C. which

D. whom

A. The/ x/ the/ x

B. The/ a/ the /x

C. an/ a/ the/ x

D. the/ the/ the/ x

A. must be taken away

B. must be ended

C. must be allowed

D. must be followed

A. must be given

B. shouldn’t be given

C. mustn’t be given

D. can be given

V. Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions.

Conservation conflicts arise when natural-resource shortages develop in the face of steadily increasing demands from a growing human population. Controversy frequently surrounds how a resource should be used, or allocated, and for whom. For example, a river may supply water for agricultural irrigation, habitat for fish, and water-generated electricity for a factory. Farmers, fishers, and industry leader vie for unrestricted access to this river, but such freedom could destroy the resource, and conservation methods are necessary to protect the river for future use.

26. What does ” supply ” in line 3 mean?

A. cover

B. provide

C. make up for

D. compensate for

27. Which word in the reading means ” living or growing in, or relating to water” ?

A. agriculture

B. major

C. fresh

D. aquatic

28. When do conflicts get worse ?

A. when natural-resource shortages increase in the features of gradually increasing demands from a rising human population.

B. when a natural resource crosses political borders

C. when freedom could destroy the resource.

D. when eroded soil and silt cloud affect many organisms.

29. Which sentence below is NOT correct?

A. Argument often surrounds how a resource should be used, or allocated, and for whom.

B. A river may provide water for agricultural irrigation, habitat for fish, and water-generated electricity for a factory

C. Conservation methods are incidental to care for the river for future use.

D. Farmers, fishers and industry leaders vie for open access to this river.

30. What is the passage above mainly about?

A. Conservation conflicts

B. Agricultural irrigation

C. The headwaters of a major river

D. Natural-resource shortages

VI. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words.

31. It wasn’t Tom in the mall yesterday because he was in the hospital. I’m sure.

32. A number of suggestions were made at the meeting. Most of them were not very practical.(Using a relative pronoun)

33. It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.

34. lot /people/ choose/ favorable date/ occasions/ such/ wedding/funeral/ house moving days.

35. nowadays/ our lives/ improved/ much/ progresses/ science and technology//

Còn tiếp …

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Bộ Đề Thi Học Kì 2 Lớp 12 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 12 học kì 2 năm 2019 – 2020

Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp án

Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.

1. The disappearance (A) of one (B) or several species may result in (C) the lost (D) of biodiversity.

2. This book needs to read (A) carefully (B) before you must (C) make a report on it (D).

3. I would like to recommend (A) the book to (B) anyone who (C) like (D) plants.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 4 to 5.

4. The reduction and possible elimination of waste tires may become a reality.

A. fulfillment

B. eradication

C. formation

D. addition

5. Another benefit is the reduction of traffic noise, a serious issue in urban areas.

A. shortcoming

B. reward

C. merit

D. damage

A. recommendation

B. information

C. fiction

D. interest

7. Species that have already lost habitat because of deforestation were given higher priority in the plan because of their greater risk of extinction.

A. ecology

B. natural surroundings

C. nature

D. domain

Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part. Choose the word with the different stress pattern.

10. A. imagine B. swallowing C. difficult D. interested

11. A. current B. toxic C. remain D. forest

12. A. alike B. like C. likely D. as

13. A. read B. reality C. realize D. realistic

14. A. original B. origin C. originate D. originally

15. A. blow B. drive C. ride D. climb

16. A. should B. must C. needn’t D. couldn’t

Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.

17. Endangered species are plant and animal species which are in danger of ………

A. expression

B. expulsion

C. extension

D. extinction

18. Children enjoy reading a ……… because they don’t have to read much.

A. thriller

B. comic

C. biography

D. novel

19. It is estimated about 5,000 species of plants and animals are ……. each year.

A. eliminated

B. cut down

C. hunted

D. poached

20. Books provide us with a wonderful source of knowledge and……

A. leisure

B. information

C. news

D. pleasure

21. Governments have ………… laws to protect wildlife from overhunting.

A. passed

B. done

C. given

D. discussed

22. She usually dips …………… a travel book.

A. with

B. through

C. in

D. into

23. Gorillas are peaceful and mainly plant – eating …………….

A. creatures

B. figures

C. creators

D. members

24. ……. sometimes describe books as ” hard – to – put – down” or “hard – to – pick – up – again”.

A. Sellers

B. Editors

C. Reviewers

D. Publishers

25. The Red List has been introduced to raise people’s awareness …………… conservation needs.

A. on

B. of

C. at

D. for

26. We can’t read different …………… of books in the same way.

A. columns

B. kinds

C. series

D. brands

27. The room ……… once a day.

A. should clean

B. should be cleaning

C. should be cleaned

D. should have cleaned

28. Keep quiet. You chúng tôi so loudly in here. Everybody is working.

A. may

B. must

C. might

D. mustn’t

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

29. Tom: “Whose book is this?” – John: “………………..”

A. It’s John’s sister.

B. It’s John’s sister’s.

C. That John’s sister’s.

D. John’s sister’s book.

30. Two friends James and Susan are talking about Mary’s accident.

James: “Mary had an accident last night. Her leg was broken”

– Susan: “……………………….”

A. Poor her.

B. Poor it.

C. How terrific!

D. Oh! Very surprise!

Air pollution can affect our health in many ways with both short-term and long-term effects. Different groups of individuals are affected by air pollution in different ways. Some individuals are much more sensitive to pollutants than are others. Young children and elderly people often suffer more from the effects of air pollution. People with health problems such as asthma, heart and lung disease may also suffer more when the air is polluted. The extent to which an individual is harmed by air pollution usually depends on the total exposure to the damaging chemicals

Examples of short-term effects include irritation to the eyes, nose and throat, and upper respiratory infections such as bronchitis and pneumonia. Other symptoms can include headaches, nausea, and allergic reactions.

Long-term health effects can include chronic respiratory disease, lung cancer, heart disease, and even damage to the brain, nerves, liver, or kidneys. Continual exposure to air pollution affects the lungs of growing children and may aggravate or complicate medical conditions in the elderly. It is estimated that half a million people die prematurely every year in the United States as a result of smoking cigarettes.

A. air pollution

B. the effect of air pollution

C. those who are affected by air pollution

D. the respiratory diseases

32. Which sentence is true?

A. Everybody is affected by air pollution in the same way.

B. All people are sensitive to pollutants.

C. Pollutants are not really harmful to people.

D. We are affected by air pollution individually.

33. Which is caused by long- term effects of air pollution?

A. sore eyes

B. bronchitis

C. headache

D. lung cancer

34. Which part of body is not affected by air pollution?

A. Brain

B. Lung

C. Heart

D. Stomach

A. suggested ways to prevent air pollution

B. listed the effects of air pollution

C. proposed solutions to air pollution

Choose the best sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.

36. It’s forbidden to smoke in this building.

A. You don’t have to smoke in this building.

B. You are allowed to smoke in this building.

C. You must not smoke in this building.

D. Smoking in this building is permitted.

37. It’s your duty to make a report on books tomorrow.

A. You should report on books tomorrow.

B. You will make a report on books tomorrow.

C. You are supposed make a report on books tomorrow.

D. You must make a report on books tomorrow.

38. Some people think that computers can replace books entirely.

A. It is said that computers can replace books entirely.

B. Computers are thought to can replace books entirely.

C. Computers can replace books entirely like some people think.

D. Replacing books by computers is very necessary.

39. Perhaps these are the keys.

A. These might be the keys.

B. These won’t be the keys.

C. These must be the keys.

D. These needn’t be the keys.

40. Books are a cheap way to get information and entertainment.

A. Getting information and entertainment in books is a cheap way.

B. A cheap way to get information and entertainment is books.

C. Reading books helps you looking for information and entertainment.

D. Books can deliver information and entertainment you need cheap.

Đáp án đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh 12 học kì 2 số 1

Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.

1 – D; 2 – A; 3 – D;

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 4 to 5.

4 – C; 5 – A;

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 6 to 7.

6 – A; 7 – B;

Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part.

8 – D; 9 – B;

Choose the word with the different stress pattern.

10 – A; 11 – C;

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.

12 – B;13 – D; 14 – A; 15 – C; 16 – B;

Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.

17 – D; 18 – B; 19 – A; 20 – D; 21 – A;

22 – D; 23 – A; 24 – C; 25 – B; 26 – B; 27 – C; 28 – D;

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

29 – B; 30 – A;

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

31 – B; 32 – D; 33 – D; 34 – D; 35 – B;

Choose the best sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.

36 – C; 37 – D; 38 – A; 39 – A; 40 – B;

Đề số 2

Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part. Choose the word with the different stress pattern. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

5.The reduction and possible elimination of waste tires may become a reality.

A. fulfillment

B.eradication

C. formation

D. addition

6. Another benefit is the reduction of traffic noise, a serious issue in urban areas.

A. shortcoming

B. reward

C. merit

D. damage

A. recommendation

B. information

C. fiction

D. interest

8. Many suggest that the trade in tropical wood products is the primary source of deforestation.

A. petrifaction of forests

B.deformation of forests

C. fossilization of forests

D. destruction of forests

Global warming is the phenomenon that the average temperature of the earth raises continuously. Its temperatures may rise by 1.4 to 5.8 degrees Celsius. The greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide or methane are the cause of the global warming. The greenhouse gases create a natural greenhouse effect.

Human activities such as burning fuels, lumbering, and agriculture will release greenhouse gases. Some of the non-human causes are volcanic emissions, solar activity, variations in the earth’s orbit.

What are the effects of global warming? The rising temperature of the earth will cause the polar ice to melt. As the ice melts, the water will cause the rising sea level and pattern of climate changes. The extreme weather such as hurricanes, tornados, droughts, heat wave, and floods occur more frequently. Other effects of global warming are lower agricultural productions, animal extinctions, or reduced summer stream flows.

There are still many scientific uncertainties of causes and effects of global warming. Some scientists argue that, “Even if there are no greenhouse gases, the events of rising sea and global warming would continue. The carbon dioxide is known for its long average atmospheric lifetime”.

A. makes the earth cooler and cooler

B. makes the temperature of the earth increase

C. is not caused by carbon dioxide

D. has no relation to the greenhouse gases

A. global warming

B. the earth

C. greenhouse gases

D. the temperature

A. human beings are the only cause of global warming

B. volcanic emissions and solar activities are not responsible for greenhouse gases

C. natural event is the only main source of greenhouse gases

D. both human activities and natural events can cause greenhouse gases

12. Which is not the effect of global warming?

A. The volcanic eruptions

B. The melting of the polar ice

C. The rising of the sea level

D. The loss of agricultural productions

13. Which sentence is true?

A. Scientists know very well about causes and effects of global warming.

B. Scientists know nothing about causes and effects of global warming.

C. Scientists are not concerned about global warming.

D. There have been uncertainties of causes and effects of global warming.

Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.

14. The number of species around the globe threatened with .. is over 15,000.

A. expression

B. expulsion

C. extension

D. extinction

15. A ……………. book tells stories through pictures.

A. thriller

B. comic

C. biography

D. novel

16. It is estimated about 5,000 species of plants and animals are … each year.

A. eliminated

B. cut down

C. hunted

D. poached

17. Books provide us with a wonderful …… of knowledge and pleasure.

A. resource

B. base

C. source

D. foundation

18. Governments have enacted laws to protect wildlife from ……. trade.

A. legal

B. commercial

C. domestic

D. international

19. My father usually dips …………… a travel book.

A. with

B. through

C. in

D. into

20. Gorillas are peaceful and mainly plant – eating …………….

A. creatures

B. figures

C. creators

D members

21. …………….. sometimes describe books as ” hard – to – put – down” or “hard – to – pick – up – again”.

A. Sellers

B. Editors

C. Reviewers

D. Publishers

22. The Red List is a … list of endangered and vulnerable animal species

A. long

B. local

C. global

D. national

23. The next meeting …………. in May.

A. will hold

B. will be held

C. will be holding

D. will have held

24. We can’t read different …………… of books in the same way.

A. columns

B. types

C. series

D. brands

25. The computer ……… reprogramming. There is something wrong with the software.

A. must

B. need

C. should

D. may

Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.

26. Species that (A) loss (B) habitat because of deforestation (C) were given higher priority in the plan because of their greater risk of extinction (D).

27. I would like recommend (A) the book to (B) anyone who (C) likes (D) plants.

28. There are (A) a number of measures (B) that should take (C) to protect endangered (D) animals.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

29.Tom: “Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?”

– John: “………………..”

A. Yes, I do, too.

B.No, thanks

C. Yes, sure.

D.No way, I just bought another book.

30.. James: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”

– Susan: “……………………….”

A. There’s no doubt about it.

B. Of course not. You bet.

C. Well that’s very surprising

D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.

Choose the best sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.

36. I think it’s wrong for you to work so hard.

A. You don’t have to work so hard.

B. You will work so hard.

C. You shouldn’t work so hard.

D. You might work so hard.

37. It’s your duty to make a report on books tomorrow.

A. You should report on books tomorrow.

B. You must make a report on books tomorrow.

C. You are supposed make a report on books tomorrow.

D. You will make a report on books tomorrow.

38. Some people think that computers can replace books entirely.

A. Replacing books by computers is very necessary.

B. Computers are thought to can replace books entirely.

C. Computers can replace books entirely like some people think.

D. It is said that computers can replace books entirely.

39. Perhaps these are the keys.

A. These might be the keys.

B. These won’t be the keys.

C. These must be the keys.

D. These needn’t be the keys.

40. We should do something to encourage children to read better.

A. To encourage children to read better, we have to do something to them.

B. Something should be done to encourage children to read better.

C. We will encourage children to read more books better by doing something.

D. Encouraging children to read better should be done by everybody.

Bộ Đề Thi Học Kì 2 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 5 Có Đáp Án

Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 5 học kỳ 2 năm 2019 – 2020

Đề thi học kì 2 lớp 5 môn tiếng Anh

A. coach

B. bus

C. motorbike

A. train

B. plane

C. coach

A. train

B. ship

C. motorbike

A. boat

B. taxi

C. plane

Question 5. Listen and complete. (1pt)

1. The girls (1) must use the zebra crossing.

Question 7. Read and colour. Insert the missing letter in the gaps (1pt) Question 8. Read and write one or more words in each gap (1pt)

What Am I?

School pupils love me very much. I take them to school in the morning. I bring them home inthe afternoon. I always observe traffic rules. I stop when I see red light. I go when I see greenlight. I always stop for people to cross the street. I never go fast in busy streets. I always slowdown when people block my way. I pick up pupils along my way to the school. I stop for pupilsto get on or get off. I love pupils and they love me. Can you say what I am?

Question 9. Fill in each gap with a suitable word in the box. (1pt)

ahead/ helmets/ accidents/ nose/ night/

PART III. SPEAKING (5 minutes) (1pt) Question 10.

1. Listen and repeat

2. Point, ask and answer

4. Interview

I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (5pts) 1. Circle the odd one out (2,5pts): Khoanh tròn từ khác loại vào A, B, C hoặc D.

1. A. Summer B. Winter C. Autumn D. Seasons

2. A. Train B. Bus C. Plane D. Book

3. A. Tomorrow B. Next week C. Yesterday D. Next Sunday

4. A. Turn right B. Turn left C. Museum D. Go straight ahead

5. A. Singer B. Player C. Sister D. Farmer

2. Match the questions in column A to their suitable answers in column B (2,5pts): (Nối câu hỏi ở cột A với các câu trả lời thích hợp ở cột B, bằng cách viết vào phần đáp án Answers) II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (5pts) 3. Reorder the words to make the sentences (2,5pts): Sắp xếp các từ sau thành câu đúng

1. wrote/ last weekend/ I/ a letter.

→ …………………………………………………………………………………..

2. a doctor/ should/ You/ see

→ …………………………………………………………………………………..

3. going/ to/ tomorrow/ are/ what/ you/ do?

→ …………………………………………………………………………………..?

4. is/ Where/ zoo/ the?

→ …………………………………………………………………………………..?

5. like/ weather/ in/ summer/ What’s/ the?

→ …………………………………………………………………………………..?

4. Read and tick True or False (2,5points) Đọc và viết: T (đúng), F (sai).

My name is Peter. I’m from England. It’s very cold in my country. In winter, I often go skiing with my friends. It is usually hot in summer. I sometimes go swimming in summer. I like travelling. I often travel to America. I go there by plane.

5. He often travels to America by plane.

Đáp án đề kiểm tra học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 5 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (5pts) 1. Circle the odd one out: Khoanh tròn từ khác loại (2,5pts)

1. D 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C

2. Match the questions in column A to their suitable answers in column B (2,5pts):

1 – e 2 – d 3 – a 4 – c 5 – b

II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (5pts) 3. Reorder the words to make the sentences (2,5pts): Sắp xếp các từ thành câu đúng.

1. I wrote a letter last weekend.

2. You should see a doctor.

3. What are you going to do tomorrow?

4. Where is the zoo?

5. What’s the weather like in winter?

4. Read and tick True or False (2,5pts) Đọc và viết: T (đúng), F (sai).

1. F 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. T

Question 4. Listen and tick. (1 pt) Question 5. Listen and complete. (1pt) OUR SCHOOL PLAY by Katie Evans

This year, our school play was Little Riding Hood.

The (0) play was in the classroom on Thursday afternoon. Our families were there.

ANSWER KEYS Question 1:

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D

Question 2:

1. pink 2. green 3. brown 4. red

Question 3:

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A

Question 4:

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A

Question 5:

1. was 2. coat 3. were 4. English

IV. Đề thi học kì 2 lớp 5 được tải nhiều nhất

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